Spine Surgery Blitz
Question 1/19
Medical
A 45-year-old male presents with persistent low back pain and radiculopathy in the right leg. MRI reveals a herniated lumbar disc at L4-L5. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
A
A. Immediate surgical intervention
B
B. Physical therapy and analgesics
C
C. Corticosteroid injection
D
D. Observation only